Fascism is Heroarchy

[Madner Kami]

TGLS did
viewtopic.php?f=22&t=7352&p=127939&hilit=1300#p127939

That's exactly not what he did.

[MithrandirOlorin]

TGLS did
viewtopic.php?f=22&t=7352&p=127939&hilit=1300#p127939

That's exactly not what he did.

"I didn't pick 1300 as the year to divide Feudalism from Capitalism for no reason".

[Madner Kami]

TGLS did
viewtopic.php?f=22&t=7352&p=127939&hilit=1300#p127939

That's exactly not what he did.

"I didn't pick 1300 as the year to divide Feudalism from Capitalism for no reason".

You've also noticed this part:

Yeah, this is why there are lots of problems dividing history into: Feudal / Capitalist. It's difficult to look at Venetian merchants and say, "No capitalism here guys!" just as it's difficult to look at the plantations of the antebellum south and say, "No feudalism here guys!"

Did you? He put that there for a reason. You shouldn't focus on one part of what someone is saying and rather pay attention to what is said overall.

[MithrandirOlorin]

TGLS did
viewtopic.php?f=22&t=7352&p=127939&hilit=1300#p127939

That's exactly not what he did.

"I didn't pick 1300 as the year to divide Feudalism from Capitalism for no reason".

You've also noticed this part:

Yeah, this is why there are lots of problems dividing history into: Feudal / Capitalist. It's difficult to look at Venetian merchants and say, "No capitalism here guys!" just as it's difficult to look at the plantations of the antebellum south and say, "No feudalism here guys!"

Did you? He put that there for a reason. You shouldn't focus on one part of what someone is saying and rather pay attention to what is said overall.

Yes he acknowledges the nuances, but the overall thesis of what he said is still that Capitalism is vindicated because post 1300 is better then pre 1300.

Problem with his thesis is the change in English land Law that happened in 1290 actually increased the power of the Nobility relative too no Nobel kind of land owners. That's also the same year that the same King banned kicked all of the Jews out of England.

[clearspira]

Trying to find some exact specific year is foolhardy. And there will always be outlying laws that you can point to that persisted. But one thing is clear: like Kami already noted, it took half of Europe's population to be wiped out to sweep all of that crap under the rug before actual change started. It isn't a coincidence that the Renaissance almost immediately followed the Black Death.

And was the Renaissance? What was that in actuality? I'll let Wiki explain it: ''The Renaissance was a cultural movement that profoundly affected European intellectual life in the early modern period. Beginning in Italy, and spreading to the rest of Europe by the 16th century, its influence was felt in art, architecture, philosophy, literature, music, science, technology, politics, religion, and other aspects of intellectual inquiry. Renaissance scholars employed the humanist method in study, and searched for realism and human emotion in art.''

Sounds like a period of time better than that feudalism and medieval bullshit, huh?

[MithrandirOlorin]

The Renaissance was still at it's core Feudalism.

[hammerofglass]

A cultural movement was at it's core a political structure? What does that even mean?

[MithrandirOlorin]

Europe was still Feudalist is clearly what I meant.

[BridgeConsoleMasher]

with his thesis is the change in English land Law that happened in 1290 actually increased the power of the Nobility relative too no Nobel kind of land owners. That's also the same year that the same King banned kicked all of the Jews out of England.

That’s just one country in Europe and it’s still long before the conventional date of 1600. I don’t believe you’re supposed to look for seeds of a political system to define an era. When one system clearly dominates the other in the overall region is what defines the era.

[MithrandirOlorin]

with his thesis is the change in English land Law that happened in 1290 actually increased the power of the Nobility relative too no Nobel kind of land owners. That's also the same year that the same King banned kicked all of the Jews out of England.

That’s just one country in Europe and it’s still long before the conventional date of 1600. I don’t believe you’re supposed to look for seeds of a political system to define an era. When one system clearly dominates the other in the overall region is what defines the era.

Exactly, I'm the one arguing that's not when Feudalism ended or began.